JEE Main Shift 2 Answer Key 2025 January 22 (Available): PDF Download For All Subjects

JEE Main Shift 2 Answer Key 2025 January 22: The National Testing Agency (NTA) conducted the JEE Main 2025 shift 2 exam on January 22, 2025. The exam timing for the second shift was from 3 PM to 6 PM, respectively. Candidates who want to know the answers to the memory-based questions can check the JEE Main Shift 2 Answer Key 2025, January 22 here.  Following the exam, many coaching institutes has also released the memory-based answer key and solutions for Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics. Candidates who want to get the answers from famous coaching institutes can also get the JEE Main Answer Key 22 January 2025 Session 1 PDFs here.

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JEE Main Shift 2 Answer Key 2025 January 22 (Unofficial)

Candidates can check the JEE Main Day 1 Shift 2 Unofficial Answer Key 2025 below:

Physics

1. An equiconvex lens of focal length f, is cut into four parts as shown in the diagram. The focal length of each part is ____.
   Answer: 2f
2. The radius of a tube decreases from 2R to R in which ideal liquid is flowing at the same level. Speed at one end is 2m/s as shown, find speed v at other end.
   Answer: 8m/s
   
3. A proton is moving with uniform velocity of 2 x 10^8 m/s in uniform magnetic and electric fields which are perpendicular to each other. If the electric field is switched off then the proton moves in a circular path of radius 1.6 x 10^-5 m. Then the magnetic field B is ______.
   Answer: 1.2 x 10^5 T
   
4. The displacement of a particle moving under the action of a force F= 2i + bj + k is d = i + j + k. Find the value of b if the work done by the force is zero.
   Answer: -3
   
5. A projectile is fired with the speed of  20m/s at an angle of 60° horizontally. The speed at the highest point of trajectory is x m/s then x is ______.
   Answer: 10 m/s
   
6. Let a and b be two unit vectors such that the angle between a and b is π/3. If x and y are perpendicular to each other , then the product of all possible values is α is _________.
   Answer: To Be Added Soon
   
7. A conducting circular ring is moving with a constant velocity in a uniform magnetic field as shown. Identify the correct graph between induced emf vs time.
   Answer: Choose the correct diagram as given in the options.
   
8. In a series LCR circuit, the maximum amplitude of current is I0 when the resistance is R. What is the maximum amplitude of current if the resistor is replaced by a resistor of resistance R/2?
   Answer: 2I₀
   
9. STATEMENT 1: Fringe width of red light is more than fringe width of violet light.
   STATEMENT 2: Fringe width is directly proportional to the wavelength of light used.
   Choose the correct option.
   Answer: Both statement I and II are correct
   
10. The net magnetic field at point O due to the two infinite current carrying wires shown in the figure is __________.
    Answer: 1 x 10^-5 T
    
11. The dimensional formula of capacitance is _____________.
    Answer: (C)=(M−1L−2T4A2)
    
12. A glass slab of refractive index μ 0 = 1.44 is coated with a thin film of refractive index μ f = 2. The minimum thickness of the film so that maximum transmission of green light of wavelength λ= 5000A (incident normally) takes place is _______.
    Answer: 0.125λm
    
13. Read the following statements and choose the correct option.
    STATEMENT 1: A pendulum is taken from Earth to another planet having mass four times and radius double than the earth.
    STATEMENT 2: The time period of pendulum only depends on the gravity of the planet.
    Answer: Statement I is true but Statement II is false
    
14. For the electric dipole shown in the figure, the electric field and the electric potential are Eq 0 V 0 at a distance r on the axis. Then what is the electric field and the electric potential at a point on the equatorial plane at a distance 2r?
    Answer: E₀ /16, 0
    
15. For non vibrating diatomic gas has adiabatic constant of λ 1 and for vibrating diatomic gas has adiabatic constant of λ 2 then _____________.
    Answer: λ1 >λ2
    
16. Displacement current in a capacitor of area 16 cm 2 is 6 A at an instant. Find displacement current across area 3.2 square centimetre.
    Answer: 1.2A

Chemistry

1. Density of 3 M NaOH is 1.25g/ml. Molality of the solution is ___.
   Answer: 2.65
2. Among Group-15 elements, what is the maximum covalency of an element having weakest E-E bond (E=element)
   Answer: 5
3. Arrange according to CFSE: [Co(NH₃)₄]²⁺,[Co(NH₃)₆]³⁺,[Co(NH₃)₆]²⁺, [Co(NH₃)₃]³⁺
   Answer: (iv)>(ii)>(iii)>(i)
4. Compare dipole moment of NF3, CHCl3, H2S, HBr.
   Answer: II>III>IV>I
5. Which one has two secondary Hydrogen atoms?
   (I) 2, 2, 4, 4-tetramethylheptane
   (II) 2, 2, 3, 4-tetramethylheptane
   (III) 2, 2, 3, 3-tetramethyloctane
   (IV) 3-ethyl-2, 2-dimethylpentane
   Answer: 2, 2, 3, 4-tetramethylheptane
6. Calculate the radius of first excited state of He⁺ ion (in A°).
   Answer: 1.058
7. Which of the following anions will not undergoes disproportionate?
   Answer: ClO ^- ₄
8. Correct structure of L-Glyceraldehyde is _____.
   Answer: Choose the correct option as given in the test.
9. 200 ml of 0.2 M solution of NaOH is mixed with 400 ml of 0.5 M NaOH solution. Molarity of mixture is ________.
   Answer: 0.4
10. In Ru and Nb, 4d electrons are x and in Nb, 4d electrons are then find the sum of x and y.
    Answer: 11
11. Ni²⁺+ 2DMG ----->Complex. How many hydrogen bonds are present in a molecule of the complex?
    Answer: 2
12. Given below are two statements-
    S-I: Lassaigne test is used for detection of Nitrogen, phosphorous, sulphur and Halogens.
    S-II: Lassaigne extract is made with magnesium metal.
    Answer: Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect
13. Consider the following statements Statement-1 and Statement-2 and choose the correct option.
    Statement-1: During corrosion pure metal acts as anode and impure metal acts as cathode.
    Statement-2: Rate of corrosion is more in alkaline medium than in acidic medium.
    Answer: Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are incorrect
14. Identify the extensive and intensive property?
    (I) Mass, volume, conductivity - Intensive property
    (II) Mass, temperature, heat, volume - Extensive property
    (III) Mass, volume, internal energy - Extensive property
    (IV) Density, temperature, moles, internal energy - Intensive property
    Answer: Mass, volume, internal energy - Extensive property
15. What is the relation between K _sp and S of Zr ₃ (PO ₄ ) ₄
    Answer: S = [K _sp /6912] ^1/7

Mathematics

1. Let P(10, -2, -1) and Q be the point of perpendicular drawn from point R(1, 7, 6) on the line joining the points (2,-5, 11) and (-6, 7, -5). Then the length PQ is    ______.
   Answer: 13
2. If 2x²+ (cosθ)x-1=0, where θ belongs to [0,2π] has roots α and β. Then the sum of maximum and minimum value of α⁴ + β⁴  is _________.
   Answer: 25/16
3. The number of maximum number of common tangents to the curves y = (x - 2) 2 and y 2 = 16 - 8x is ______________.
   Answer: 1
4. Let a and b be two unit vectors such that angle between a and b is π/3. If λa + 3b and 2a + λb are perpendicular to each other, then the product of all possible values of λ is    
   Answer: 6
5. 4 boys and 3 girls are to be seated in a row such that all girls seat together and two particular boys B1 and B2 are not adjacent to each other. Then the number of ways in which this arrangement can be done is __________. 
   Answer: 432
6. Consider two curves E ₁ : x ² /a ² + y ² /b ² = 1 with eccentricity e1 and E ₂ : x ² /A ² + y ² /B ² = 1 with eccentricity e ₂ . If e ₁ /e ₂ = 1/3 and distance between foci of both curves is 2√3 and a - A = 4, then the sum of lengths of latus rectum of both curves is ________________.
   Answer: 12
7. If A is the 3 x 3 matrix of order 3 x 3, such that det(A) = 1/2, tr(A) = 10 and B be another matrix of order 3 x 3 and defined as B = adj(adj(2A)) then det(B) + tr(B) is equal to (where tr(A) denotes trace of matrix A)
   Answer: 336
8. A relation R is defined on set A, A = (1, 2, 3) and R = {(1, 2), (2, 3)). Elements are added such that R becomes reflexive and transitive but not symmetric. Find the number of such relations.
   Answer: 3
9. If θ ∈ [0, 2π] satisfying the system of equations 2sin2θ = cos2θ and 2cos2θ = 3cosθ. Then the sum of all real values of θ is ___________.
   Answer: π
10. If z be a complex number such that |z - 3| <= 1, then the equation of line with the largest slope passing through origin and z.
    Answer: x - 2√2y = 0
11. In the expansion of (x + √x 3 -1) 5 + (x - √x 3 −1) 5 , where α, β, γ and δ are the coefficients of x x 3 , x 5 and x 7 respectively. If αu – βν = 18 and γu + δv = 20, then u + v is equal to  _____.
    Answer: -14/15
12. If the sum ∑ 30 r=0 [ (r 2 ( 30 C r ) 2 ) / ( 30 C r-1 ) = α.2 29 , then find the value of α.
    Answer: 465
13. Consider a function f(x) = ∫ 0 x^2 [(t 2 - 8t + 15) / e t ] dt. The number of points of exterma are ______.
    Answer: 5
14. Number of terms in an arithmetic progression is 2n. Sum of terms occurring at even places is 40 and sum of terms occurring at odd places is 55. If the first term exceeds the last term by 27, then n equals to ________.
    Answer: 5
15. Let A = {1, 2, 3, 4) and B = {1, 4, 9, 16). If f: A→B, then number of many-one functions from A to B are ______________.
    Answer: 1
16. Let A(6, 8), B(10 cosα - 10sinα) and C(-10sinα, -10cosα) be 3 points and if orthocenter of the triangle ABC is (0, 9), then 100sin 2 α is equal to ___________.
    Answer: 25/4
17. Let A and B are two events such that P(A ∩ B) = 1/10, then P(AUB) P(A∩B) = and P(A/B) and P(B/A) are the roots of the equation 10 is equal to 12x 2 -7x + 1 = 0 then P(Abar U Bbar)/P(Abar ∩ Bbar) = ________________.
    Answer: 9/4
18. The perpendicular distance of point P(3, 4, 5) from the line 7 = 2î - j + k + λ(4î – j + 5k) is _________.
    Answer: (19/42) ^1/2

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JEE Main Session 1 Day 1 Shift 2 Answer Key 2025 PDF by Coaching Institutes

Interested candidates can check below to get the JEE Main January 22 Shift 2 Answer Key 2025 Session 1 from coaching institutes like Resonance, Aakash, and many more. One must remember that the memory-based questions that have been provided here have been collected from the students who attempted the examination and all the subject matter experts. 

Resonance JEE Main Session 1 January 22 Answer Key 2025

Students who want the answer key for the JEE Main Session 1 January 22 Exam 2025 from Resonance can check the table below:

JEE Main Shift 2 Jan 22 Vedantu Answer Key 2025

Refer to the table below to get the detailed JEE Main Shift 2 Answer Key 2025 January 22 from the Vedantu:

Aakash JEE Main Answer Key 22nd January 2025 Session 1

From Aakash institution, students can get the JEE Main Answer Key 22nd January 2025 Session 1 below:

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JEE Main Shift 2 Jan 22 FIITJEE Answer Key 2025

Candidates who are searching for the JEE Main Shift 2 Answer Key 2025 January 22 from FIITJEE can check the table below: