NEET UG Biology Answer Key 2025: As the National Testing Agency (NTA) held the National Eligibility Cum Entrance Test (NEET) 2025 today, May 4, 2025, candidates who appeared for the NEET UG 2025 examination can access the NEET 2025 Biology Unofficial Answer Key that will be available here soon. As per the NEET UG 2025 Exam Pattern, 4 marks will be awarded to each right answer and 1 mark will be deducted for each incorrect answer.
The NEET 2025 Question Paper had 90 Biology questions. According to the students' reactions, the NEET UG Biology section was easy to moderate but tougher as compared to year 2024. Candidates who appeared for the NEET 2025 examination and are eager to analyse their performance can check the NEET Biology Answer Key 2025 available here.
NEET Biology Answer Key 2025 LIVE
The answers to the NEET 2025 Biology questions are given in the table below.
NEET 2025 Biology Questions | NEET Biology Answer Key 2025 | ||||||||||
Question 1: The complex Il of mitochondrial electron cransport chain is also known as? | (2) Succinate dehydrogenas | ||||||||||
Question 2: Which of the following is the characteristic feature of gymnosperm? | (4) Seeds are naked | ||||||||||
Question 3: Which chromosome in human genome has the highest number of genes? | (1) Chromosome 1 | ||||||||||
Question 4: What is the main function of spindle fibres during Mitosis? | (3) To separate the chromosomes | ||||||||||
Question 5: Epiphytes that are growing on a mango branch is an example of which of the following? | (3) Commensalism | ||||||||||
Question 6: The protein portion of an enzyme is called? | (1) Apoenzyme | ||||||||||
Question 7: The first menstruation is called | (4) Menarche | ||||||||||
Question 8: In frog the renal portal system is a special venous connection that acts to link: | (2) Kidney and lower part of body | ||||||||||
Question 9: Polymarase chain reaction amplifies DNA following the equation | (4) 2n | ||||||||||
Question 10: In the above represented plasmid an alien piece of DNA is inserted at EcoRI site. Which of the following strategies will be choosen to select the recombinant colonies? | (1) white color colonies will be selected | ||||||||||
Question 11: Given below are two statements : Statement 1: The primary source of energy in an ecosystem is solar energy. Statement 2: The rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis in an ecosystem is called primary productivity (NPP). |
(1) Statement I is correct but statement ll is incorrect | ||||||||||
Question 12: Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : A typical unfertilised, angiosperm embryo sac at maturity is 8 nucleate and 7-celled. Reason (R): The egg apparatus has 2 polar nuclei. Chosse the correct option. |
(1) A is true R is false | ||||||||||
Question 13: Match the column.
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(2) A- iii, B- I, C- iv, D - ii | ||||||||||
Question 14: All living members of the class Cyclostomata are : | (2) Ectoparasite | ||||||||||
Question 15: Which one of the following statements refers to Reductionist Biology? | (1) The Physio-chemical approach to study and und-stand living organisms. | ||||||||||
Question 16: Given below are two statements :
Statement 1: In the RNA world, RNA is considered the first genctic material evolved to carry out essential life processes. RNA acts as a genctic material and also as a catalyst for some important biochemical reactions in living systems. Beitig reactive, RNA is unstable. |
(1) Both state - I and II are correct | ||||||||||
Question 19: From the statements given below choose the correct option : A. The eukaryotic ribosomes are 80S and prokaryotic ribosomes are 70S. B. Each ribosome has two sub-units. C. The two sub-units of 80S ribosome are 60S and 40S While that of 70S are 50S and 30S. D. The two Sub-units of 80S ribosome are 60S and 20S and that of 70S are SOS and 20S. E. The two sub-units of 80S are 605 and 30S and that of 70S are 50S and 30S. |
(1) A, B, C are true |
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Question 20: Which one of the following is an example of ex-suit conservation? |
(3) Zoos and Botanical gardens |
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Question 21: Given below are two statements : |
(3) Statement I is correct but statement Il is incorrect |
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Question 22: Which of the following is an example of non-distilled alcoholic beverage produced by yeast? |
(3) Beer |
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Question 23: Given below are two statements : Statement 1 : In a Moral formula ⊕ stands for zygomorphic nature of the Hower, and & stands for inferior ovary. Statement Il: In a floral formula G stands for actinomorphic nature of the flower and G stands for superior ovary. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below : |
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement Il is correct |
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Question 24: Streptokinase produced by bacterium Streptococens is used for: |
(4) Removing blood clots from bloof vessels |
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Question 25: Which chromosome in the human genome has the highest number of genes? |
(2) Chromosome Y |
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Question 26: Which one of the following phytohormones promotes nutrient mobilization which helps in the delay of leaf senescence in plants? |
(4) Cytokinin |
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Question 27: Given below are the stages in the life cycle of pteridophytes. Arrange the following stages in the correct sequence. A. Prothallus stage B. Meiosis in spore mother cells C. Fertilisation D. Formation of archegonia and antheridia in gametophytc. E. Transfer of antherozoids to the archegonia in presence of water. Choose the cotrect answer from the options given below : |
(1) B, A, D, E. |
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Question 28: Which of following organisms cannot fix nitrogen? |
(2) D only |
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Question 29: Given below are two statements : Statement I: Transfer RNAs and ribosomal RNA do not interact with mRNA. Statement Il : RNA interference (RNAi) takes place in all eukaryotic grganisms as a method of cellular defence. m In the light of the aboye, statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below : |
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement Il is correct |
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Question 30: Find the statement that is NOT correct with regrad to the structure of monocot system |
(1) Hypodermis is parenchymatous. |
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Question 31: The correst sequence gi events in the life cycle of bryophytes is A. Fusion of anthegozoid with egg- B. Attachment of gametophyte to substratum. M C. Reduction division to produce haploid spores. D. Formation of sporophyte. E. Release of antherozoids into water. Choose the correct answer from the options given below: |
(3) B,E,A,D,C |
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Question 32: Each of the following characteristics represent a Kingdom proposed by Whitaker. Arrange the following in increasing order of complexity of body organization.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below |
(2) C,E,A,D,B |
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Question 33: Who is known as the father of Ecology in India? |
(2) Romdeo Mishra |
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Question 34: Match List I with List II :
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(3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II |
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Question 35: Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 17 Assertion (A) : The primary function of the Golgi apparatus is to package the materials made by the endoplasmic reticulum and deliver it to intracellular targets and outside the cell. Reason (R) : Vesicles containing materials made by the endoplasmic reticulum fuse with the cis face of the Golgi apparatus, and they are modified and released from the trans face of the Golgi apparatus. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below : |
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A |
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Question 36: Match List I with List 2 :
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(1) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I |
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Question 37: Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 50 Assertion (A) : The primary function of the Golgi apparatus is to package the materials made by the endoplasmic reticulum and deliver it to intracellular targets and outside the cell. Reason (R) : Vesicles coptaining materials made by the endoplasmic reticulum fuse with the cis face of the Golgi apparatus, and they are modified and released from the trans face of the Golgi apparatus. 0) In the light of the above sfatements, choose the correct answer from the options given below |
(1) Both A and Rare trug and R is the correct explanation of A |
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Question 38: Genes R and Y follow independent assortment. IRRYY produce round yellow seeds and rryy produce wrinkled green seeds, what will be the phenotypic ratio of the F2 generation? |
(3) Phenotypic ratio - 9: 3: 3 : 1 |
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Question 39: Histones afe enriched with - |
(1) Lysine & Arginine |
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Question 40: Which of the following is the unit of productivity of an Ecosystem? |
(4) (KCal m-2 )yr-1 |
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Question 41: Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R) Reason (R) : Presence of more than one nucleus in the tapetum increases the efficiency of nourishing the developing microspore mother cells. In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate ansier from the options given below : |
(1) Both A and, Rare thie and R is the correct explanation of A |
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Question 42: How many meiotic and mitotic divisions need to occur for the development of a mature female gametophyte from the megaspore mother cell in an angiosperm plant? |
(3) 1 Meiosis and 3 Müpsis |
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Question 43: Given below are two statements : Statement I: Fig fruit is a non-vegetarian fruit as it as relief i apa in egetarian fruit Statement Il : Fig wasp and fig tree exhibit mutual relationship as fig wasp completes its life cycle in fig fruit and fig fruit gets pollinated by fig wasp. In the light of the abové statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: |
(1) Both statement I and statement Il are correct |
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Question 44: What is the main function of the spindle fibers during mitosis ? |
(1) To separate the chromosomes |
Candidates must note that the NEET Biology Answer Key 2025 available here is an unofficial one and must be used only for reference. The National Testing Agency (NTA) will release the NEET provisional answer key 2025 first, followed by the NEET 2025 final answer key after considering the challenges raised by candidates.
Likewise, candidates can expect the NEET UG Provisional Answer Key 2025 to be released by the last week of May 2025. For candidates' reference, the NEET OMR sheet 2025 will also be mailed to the registered email address of the candidates. Visit the official website of NTA for regular updates.
Also Check |
- NEET UG Answer Key 2025 Expected Date: Last 5 Year Trends
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