CBSE Class 12 Economics Answer Key 2025 (Available): Detailed solutions PDF download

CBSE Class 12 Economics Answer Key 2025: Detailed solutions PDF download

CBSE Class 12 Economics Answer Key 2025 is available here (Image Credits: pexels.com).

CBSE Class 12 Economics Answer Key 2025: The CBSE Class 12 Economics Answer Key 2025 for sets A, B, C, and D is now available. Students who appeared for the exam on March 19, 2025, can utilize these CBSE Class 12 Economics Answer Key 2025 to estimate their probable scores. The three-hour-long examination was conducted with four different sets of question papers Set A, B, C, and D. The question paper was divided into sections of different types of questions. The answer key PDF available here provides the correct answers for Multiple-Choice Questions (MCQs) and Very Short Answer Type Questions. While objective questions can be easily evaluated, it's important to note that long answer questions will be assessed based on the quality of the written response, including clarity, depth of understanding, and adherence to the marking scheme.

Also Read: CBSE 12th Economics Exam Analysis 2025: Difficulty level and student reviews

CBSE Class 12 Economics Answer Key 2025: Detailed Solutions

Candidates can access the detailed CBSE Class 12 Economics Answer Key 2025 below.

Questions	CBSE Class 12 Economics Answer Key 2025
Section A: Macro Economics
1. Market forces of demand and supply, actively interact under exchange rate system to determine the foreign exchange rate. (A) fixed (B) flexible (C) managed floating (D) fixed floating	(B) flexible
2. Read the following statements carefully : Statement 1: During a deflationary gap, the Central Bank of a country may increase the repo rate. Statement 2: The government can reduce the deflationary gap by purchasing Government Securities (G-Sec) in the open market. In the light of the given statements, choose the correct option from the following: (A) Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false. (B) Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true. (C) Both Statements 1 and 2 are true. (D) Both Statements 1 and 2 are false.	(B) Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
3. Under the Keynesian theory, 'Reference Line' is a straight line passing through the origin drawn at an angle of (A) 25° (B) 45° (C) 55° (D) 75°	(B) 45°
4. According to the data presented in the Union Budget 2023-24, the total receipts of the government (other than borrowings), and the total expenditure are estimated as 20 lakh crore and 45 lakh crore respectively. Therefore, the value of crore. deficit would be ₹25 lakh (A) revenue (B) fiscal (C) trade (D) primary	(B) fiscal
5. Read the following statements carefully: Statement 1: Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC) exhibits the consumption per unit of income. F Statement 2: As the national income of a country rises, the proportionate increase in the consumption is always more than the increase in the income. In the light of the given statements, choose the correct option from the following: (A) Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false. (B) Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true. (C) Both Statements 1 and 2 are true. (D) Both Statements 1 and 2 are false.	(A) Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
6. In a two-sector economy, Aggregate Supply can be determined by adding _______ and _____. (A) consumption, investments (B) investments, savings (C) consumption, savings (D) savings, exports	(A) consumption, investments
7. Read the following statements carefully : Statement 1: Foreign aids are the capital receipts for the government. Statement 2: Disinvestments may lead to a decrease in the assets of the government. In the light of the given statements, choose the correct option from the following: (A) Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false. (B) Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true. (C) Both. Statements 1 and 2 are true. (D) Both Statements 1 and 2 are false.	(C) Both. Statements 1 and 2 are true.
8. From the following, identify the situation which indicates the Current Account Surplus (CAS) in Balance of Payments (BOP) account of a nation. (A) Excess of receipts on current account over the payments on current account. (B) Equality of receipts on current account and payments on current account. (C) Excess of payments on current account over receipts on current account: (D) Excess of payments on current account over receipts on capital account.	(D) Excess of payments on current account over receipts on capital account.
9. To arrive at the value of Net Value Added at Market Price (NVAMP), ____ must be ____ to/from Gross Value Added at Market Price (GVA MP ). (A) depreciation added (B) depreciation, subtracted (C) net indirect taxes, subtracted (D) net indirect taxes, added	(B) depreciation, subtracted
10. Identify, which of the following does not represent a public good. (A) Free vaccines provided by the government- (B) Defence services provided by the military (C) Purchase of railway ticket by an individual (D) Street light installed by a city municipality	(C) Purchase of railway ticket by an individual
Section B: Indian Economic Development
18. In the post-independence era, the policy makers of India emphasised on 'self-reliance' for the first Five Year Plans. (A) 6 (B) 7 (C) 8 (D) 9	(A) 6
19. Identify, which of the following statements is incorrect about the Rural Banking system in India. (A) The Rural Banking system in India consists of a set of multi-agency institutions. (B) In the post-independence period, a well-structured Rural Banking system was formulated in India. (C) Regional Rural Banks, Cooperative and Land Development Banks are components of the Rural Banking system in India. (D) The Rural Banking system in India works under the guidance, instruction and supervision of the State Bank of India.	(D) The Rural Banking system in India works under the guidance, instruction and supervision of the State Bank of India.
20. Identify, which of the following statements is incorrect about the functions of environment. (A) Environment provides resources. (B) Environment absorbs wastage. (C) Environment sustains life. (D) Environment deteriorates quality of life.	(D) Environment deteriorates quality of life.
21. Choose the correct alternative from the options given below: Assertion (A): Under the financial sector reforms introduced in 1991, the foreign investment limit in banks was raised up to around 74%. Reason (R): Foreign Institutional Investors (FIIs) were allowed to invest in Indian financial markets, post-1991. Options: (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A). (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A). (C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false. (D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.	(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
22. Suppose an imaginary economy is experiencing a situation of rise in Real Gross Domestic Product (GDP), without any corresponding adequate rise in the employment opportunities in the economy." In economic parlance, such a situation is termed as growth. (A) Casual (B) Informal (C) Formal (D) Jobless	(B) Informal
23. Read the following statements carefully: Statement 1: The British policies led to huge employment generation in the secondary and tertiary sectors of the Indian Economy. Statement 2: The real motive of the colonial government's infrastructural development was to benefit interests of India. In the light of the given statements, choose the correct alternative from the following: (A) Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false. (B) Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true. (C) Both Statements 1 and 2 are true. (D) Both Statements, 1 and 2 are false.	(D) Both Statements, 1 and 2 are false.
24. Read the following statements carefully: Statement 1: The purchase of food grains, made by the government on the Minimum Support Price (MSP), is maintained as buffer stock. Statement 2: Minimum Support Price (MSP) safeguards the farmers against any sharp fall in farm product prices. In the light of the given statements, choose the correct option from the following: (A) Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false. (B) Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true. (C) Both Statements 1 and 2 are true. (D) Both Statements 1 and 2 are false.	(D) Both Statements 1 and 2 are false.
25. Study the image. From the following, choose the correct option which indicates similarities in the policies of India and Pakistan, in the post-1947 period: (A) Dual pricing policy (B) Commune system (C) Import substitution (D) Great Proletarian Cultural Revolution	(C) Import substitution
26. Production of diverse varieties of crops, rather than one specialised crop, is known as diversification of (A) Crops (B) Agricultural Production (C) Sectoral Composition (D) Employment	(B) Agricultural Production
27. Read the following statements - Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Assertion (A): People spend to acquire information related to labour and other markets (like, education and health). Reason (R): Expenditure on information is necessary for efficient utilisation of the human capital stock. Options (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A). (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A). (C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false. (D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.	(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).

The above given CBSE Class 12 Economics Answer Key 2025 is taken from the collegedekho website.

Further, while going through the CBSE Class 12 Economics Answer Key 2025, it is important to note that the answer key is unofficial and students can only use it as a reference to check their performance and calculate their probable scores. To pass the class 12 board exams 2025, students need to score 33% in their theory papers and 33% in their practicals, projects, and internal assessments. Overall students need to score 33% by combining theory and practical exams.

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