JEE Main Shift 2 Question Paper 2025 (Available): April 4 Memory Based Questions, Answer Key

JEE Main Shift 2 Question Paper 2025 April 4: NTA conducted the computer-based JEE Main 2025 Session 2 exam on April 4, 2025. After the exam is over, the memory-based JEE Main Shift 2 Question Paper 2025 April 4 in PDF format for every subject will be added here. Shift 2 (afternoon session) of Paper 1 (B.Tech) exam was held from 3 PM to 6 PM on April 4th. Those who have not taken the test can get a set of memory-based questions from reputable coaching centers. Students can also check the JEE Main Shift 2 Question Paper April 4 and its answer key.

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JEE Main Session 2 April 4th Shift 2 Question Paper 2025 with Answer Key (LIVE) (Available)

Candidates can check a few questions and answers for all the subjects for the Day 2 Shift 2 examination below:

JEE Main Physics Question 2025 April 4th Shift 2

The memory-based questions from the Physics section for Day 3 Shift 2 exam has been added below.

1. A disc is performing pure rolling if speed of top point is 8m/s. Find speed of point B.
   (A) 2 m/s
   (B) 4 m/s
   (C) 6 m/s
   (D) 8 m/s
2. In a YDSE setup, the slits are separated by 1.5 mm and the distance between slits and screen is 2 mm. On using light of wavelength 400 mm, it is observed that 20 maximas of double slit experiment lie inside the central maxima of single slit diffraction. The width of each slit is _____ (in µm).
3. The equivalent capacitance between A and B is _____________.
4. Let L₁: (x-1)/3=y/4=z/5 and L₂: (x-p)/2=y/3=z/4. If the shortest distance between L₁and L₂ is 1/√6. Then possible value of p is:
   (A) 3
   (B) 2
   (C) 5
   (D) 7
5. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
   Assertion (A): Plank's constant and linear momentum have same dimensions.
   Reason (R): Bohr's angular momentum is integral multiple of h/2π.
6. A particle of mass m is at a distance 3R from the centre of Earth. Find minimum energy of particie to leave Earths field (R: Radius of Earth)
   (A) mgR/3
   (B) 3mgR
   (C) 2/3(mgR)
   (D) (mgR)/2
7. If the displacement of the block is 5 m, the work done by force applied is ___________ (coefficient of friction between block and surface is 1/4).
8. A medium has relative permittivity 1/0.085 and relative permeability is 10/π. Find ratio of speed of light in vacuum to the medium.
9. If resistor R ₁ = R ₂ = R ₃ = 5Ω and R ₄ = 10Ω which circuit diagram is having equivalent (across A and B) resistance = 6Ω.
10. Two polarises P ₁ and P ₂ are aligned in such a way that intensity is zero. P3 polarises is inserted between P ₁ and P ₂ such that final transmitted ray will have the maximum intensity. Find angle between P ₁ and P _{3 .}
11. The dimensional formula of the ratio of electrical dipole moment to the magnetic moment is M ^P L ^Q T ^R A ^S . Then P, Q, R, and S are ___________.
12. Four points on a uniformly charged ring are labelled as A, B, C, and D such that AB = BC = CD = DA. If the electric field due to the segment BC at the centre has a magnitude E, then the magnitude of electric field due to the segment ABC is ________________.
    (A) √2E
    (B) E
    (C) 0
    (D) E/√2
13. An ac source of 100n volt is connected to the given circuit. Find maximum value of the current in the circuit.
14. A force F = 105 N is applied on the cylinder as shown. If the shear modulus of the cylinder is 10¹⁰ N/m² find θ.
15. In a successive nuclear decay, a sample of radioactive nuclei A decays into an nuclei B which further disintegrates into a stable nuclei C. Which of the following graphs correctly represents the concentration of the nuclei as a function of time? (Assume concentration of B and C to be zero initially)
16. For n-type semiconductor, choose the corect option having correct statements.
17. A convex mirror with f = 30 cm is given an object is placed in front of this mirror at distance 30 cm from mirror. Find the position of plane mirror (with small aperture) with respect to convex mirror, such that images of the both mirrors coincide.

JEE Main Chemistry Question 2025 April 4th Shift 2

The recall-based questions from the Chemistry section for Day 3 Shift 2 exam is now available here.

1. Maximum IE and minimum IE of group 13 elements are _____________.
2. Statement-I: CIF 3 has 3 possible structures
   Statement-II: III is most stable structure due to least Ip-bp repulsion.
3. The correct IUPAC name of the following compound is _______________.
4. Total number of electrons in chromium (Z = 24) for which the value of azimuthal quantum number (I) is 1 and 2.
5. x is a peptide which is hydrolysed to 2 amino acids y and z. y when react with HNO₂ gives lactic acid. z when heated gives cyclic structure as below. y and z respectively are ___________.
   (A) Alanine and Lysine
   (B) Alanine and Glycine
   (C) Glycine and Alanine
   (D) Valine and Glycine
6. Consider the following complex ions:
   (a) Ni(CO) 4
   (b) [Ni(CN) 6 ] 2-
   (c) [FeF 6 ] 3-
   (d) [CoF 6 ] 3-
   Which of the following order is correct for their unpaired electrons?
7. Consider the following zero order reaction: A → Products
   Half-life of the reaction is 1 hr if initial concentration of the reactant is 2 mol/L. Find the half-life of the reaction in minutes if the initial concentration of the reaction is 0.5 mol/L.
8. If x mg of Mg(OH) ₂ is added in 1 L of solution to make a solution with pH = 10, then find the value of x.
   [Given: MW of Mg(OH) ₂ = 58 g/mol] Assume Mg(OH) ₂ dissociates completely in water.
9. Consider the following graph between rate constant (K) and 1/T. Choose the correct option.
10. Arrange the following carbocation in decreasing order of their stability.

11. List I	List II
    a. Adiabatic process	i. WαΔT
    b. Isochoric process	ii. W = 0
    c. Isobaric process	iii. ΔU + W = 0
    d. Isothermal process	iv. ΔU = 0

12. Statement-I: Aqueous KOH gives elimination reaction as major product always.
    Statement-II: Alcoholic KOH eliminates H ⁺ from ẞ-carbon atom
    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
13. Consider the following reaction. Identify the major product 'P'.
14. Which of the following compound gives yellow precipitate with NaOl?
15. An octahedral complex ion of metal (M4+) with ligand NH3 and Cl- gives 'n' mol of precipitate with 1 mol of complex ion with AgNO3 solution. The value of n is same as number of lone pair present in central atom of BrF3. Find the total number of isomers of complex ion.
16. Find the mass of CaO formed in kg when 150 kg sample of 75% pure CaCO3 is heated strongly.
17. Two adiabatic containers A and B have volume in the ratio 1: 2. The pressure and temperature for gas in A is 8 kPa and 1000 K, and the corresponding values for B is 7 kPa and 500 K. If the containers are connected by a thin pipe and gases are allowed to mix thoroughly, the final temperature of the mixture is 600 K. The final pressure in the vessel is _____________.
18. Among the following complexes of iron, the most stable complex having x number of electron in t₂g set of orbitals [Fe(NH3)6]3+ [Fe(CN)6], [FeF]3. What is the nature of oxide V₂Ox?

JEE Main Maths Question 2025 April 4th Shift 2

The questions which are memory-based and collected from students for the Mathematics section for Day 3 Shift 2 exam is added here for the candidates.

1. cot^-1(7/4) + cot^-1(19/4) + cot^-1(39/4) +..........∞
2. If a be the non real root of the equation 1 + x + x2 = 0. Find n if...
3. Let f(x) and g(x) be the functional equations of the .....
4. Let A = (-3, -2, -1, 0, 1, 2, 3) and xRy2x-y E (0,1). If I is number of elements in given relation, m and n are minimum number of elements to be added to make it reflexive and symmetric, respectively. Then I + m + n equals to _____________.
5. In ΔABC if A is (2, -3, 1), B is (3, -1, -5) and C is (1, -4, -4). If G is the centroid of ΔABC, then 6((AG) ² + (BG) ² + (CG)2) is equal to ________________.
6. If 1 2 - 15 C 1 +2 2 15 C 2 +.....+ 15 2 . 15 C 15 is equal to 2 n x3 m x5 k , then m + n+k is equal to _____________.
7. The sum of three terms in A.P. "A" is 36. and product is p and for A.P. "B" sum is of three terms and p+q/p-q = 19 given D = d +3. Find the value of p-q.
8. The area bounded between the tangent of a parabola y² = x − 2 which passes through (-4, 0) with positive slope, x-axis, and the parabola is ______________ (in square units).
9. In a ellipse, the line y = x + p is a tangent on it and touches at points P and Q. Also if the line y = x intersects ellipse at R and S. Then area of quadrilateral PRQS is ____________ (where a = 3 and b = 4).
   (A) 12
   (B) 10
   (C) 24
   (D) 20

The April 4 Shift 2 question paper will be useful for JEE Main preparation because it helps students become accustomed to the kinds of questions they can encounter on the exam. With the help of memory-based questions, candidates can analyze their performance, estimate their scores, and find topics with more expected questions in the upcoming sessions.

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