JEE Main Question Paper 3 April 2025 Shift 2 (Available): Memory Based Questions, Answer Key

JEE Main Question Paper 3 April 2025 Shift 2: For the April 3, 2025 examination under JEE Main Session 2 2025, candidates can access JEE Main Shift 2 Question Paper 2025 for the Shift 2 below. As the examination is being held online, the question paper will include memory-based questions from Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics only. There will be 25 questions from each subject as per the question pattern. With the help of the JEE Main Question Paper 3 April 2025 Shift 2 given here, applicants can understand the nature of the paper and which questions are likely to appear in the remaining shifts.

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JEE Main Session 2 April 3 Shift 2 Question Paper 2025 with Answer Key (LIVE) (Available)

Candidates can check a few questions and answers for all the subjects for the Day 2 Shift 2 examination below:

JEE Main Physics Question 2025 April 3 Shift 2

The questions from the Physics section for Day 2 Shift 2 exam is added below.

1. Excess pressure inside bubble A is half of that of bubble B. Find ratio of volume of bubble A to bubble B.
2. The ratio of intensities of two coherent is 1:9. The ratio of the maximum to the minimum intensities is _____________.
3. In a resonance tube experiment at one end, resonance is obtained at two consecutive lengths / ₁ = 100 cm and / ₂ = 140 cm. If the frequency of the sound is 400 Hz, the velocity of sound is _______________.
4. In a medium of refractive index 2, the frequency of light is 5 x 10 ¹⁴ Hz, the wavelength of the light is ____________________.
   (A) 600 nm
   (B) 500 nm
   (C) 400 nm
   (D) 300 nm
5. The torque experienced by a magnetic dipole in a uniform magnetic field is 80√3 N.m. If the angle between the magnetic moment and the magnetic field is 60°, the potential energy of the dipole is ____________.
6. The ratio of intensities of two coherent sources is 1: 9. The ratio of the maximum to the minimum intensities is _______.
   (A) 8:1
   (B) 4:1
   (C) 9:1
   (D) 16:1
7. A capacitor C ₁ = 100 pF is connected to a 60 V cell and then disconnected. C ₁ is now connected to an unchanged capacitor C ₂ such that the final potential across C ₁ becomes 20 V. Find C ₂ .
8. Statement-l: O ^2- and H ⁺ are projected in a magnetic field perpendicular to the field with same speed. The radius of curvature of O ^2- will be less than H ⁺ .
   Statement-ll: e ^- and p ⁺ are projected in a magnetic field perpendicular to the field with same speed. The radius of curvature of e ^- will be more the proton.
9. A magnetic dipole experiences a torque of 80√3 Nm when placed in uniform magnetic field in such a way that dipole moment makes an angle of 60° with magnetic field. The potential energy of the dipole is ______________.
10. Physical quantity S is given as S = pq/r3√t.  Find the percentage error in S if percentage error in p, q, r and t are 1, 1, 3 and 2 respectively.
    (A) 12%
    (B) 9%
    (C) 15%
    (D) 5%
11. The pressure of an ideal gas is increased by 0.4% keeping the volume constant. Find the initial temperature of the gas if there is a 1°C rise in temperature.
12. A bulb rated 100 W, 220 V connected to an ac supply of 220 V. Find the peak current in the bulb.
13. The shortest distance between the curves is x2 = 8y and x² + (y - 6)2 = 1.
    (A) 4√2
    (B) 2√2
    (C) 6
    (D) 3√2
14. A block of mass 10 kg is moving with speed 3 m/s collides with a spring connected to another block of mass 5 kg initially at rest. Find the compression in spring when both move with same speed.
15. A projectile is fired with an initial velocity u, such that range of the projectile is 3 times the maximum height. If the range of the projectile is Nu ² /25g, Find value of N.
16. A solid ball of diameter 3.6 mm and having density 7825 kg/m ³ . This ball has terminal velocity 2.56 × 10 ^-2 m/s in a liquid of density 925 kg/m ³​​​​​​. Find coefficient (in pascal sec) of viscosity.
17. 'x' coordinate of a particle is given by x = g(t² - 2) + c(t − 2)2 . Select the correct option:
    (A) Initial velocity is 4c
    (B) acceleration is 2c
    (C) acceleration is 2c
    (D) acceleration is 2(c + c)
18. The displacement of a particle is given as x = C ₀ (t ² − z) + C(t − z) ² , where t is time in seconds and C ₀ and C are constants the acceleration of the particle is _________>
19. In two situations given in figures (i) and (ii) current through R is l ₁ and l _2, respectively. If E ₁ = 2 V, r ₁ = 1 Ω, E ₂ = 1 V, r ₂ = 2 Ω, R = 6 Ω then find l ₁ / l ₂ .
20. Find the distance of the object from the left surface, if the distance of the final image from the left surface is 200 cm.

JEE Main Chemistry Question 2025 April 3 Shift 2

The questions from the Chemistry section for Day 2 Shift 2 exam is available here.

1. Amount of magnesium (Mg) (in mg) required to liberate 224 mL of H₂ gas at STP, when reacted with HCl.
2. Statement I: Hyperconjugation is not permanent effect.
   Statement II: If No. of alkyl group increase, stability of carbocation increases.
   In the light of above statements, choose the correct option.
   (A) Statement-I and Statement-II both are correct
   (B) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is incorrect
   (C) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is correct
   (D) Statement-I and Statement-II both are incorrect
3. The IUPAC name of the compound is ____________.
4. Find out magnitude of work done in the process ABCD (in kJ) (1 atm. Lit = 101.3 J)
5. Statement-I: Wet cotton clothes made up of cellulose based carbohydrates take a comparatively longer time to get dried than wet Nylon based clothes.
   Statement-II: Both form intermolecular H-bonter molecules
   (A) Statement-I and Statement-II both are correct
   (B) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is incorrect
   (C) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is correct
   (D) Statement-I and Statement-II both are incorrect
6. Among Sc, Ti, Mn and Co, Calculate the spin only magnetic moment in oxidation state of metal having highest heat of atomisation.
7. At 715 mm pressure, 300 K, volume of N₂ (g) evolved was 80 mL by a 0.4 g sample of organic compound. Find % of N in organic compound (tension at 300 K = 15 mm).
8. Which of the following order is correct?
   (A) Electronegativity : B > TI > In > Ga > Al
   (B) lonisation energy : B > TI > Ga > Al > In
   (C) Density: TI > In > Ga > Al > B
   (D) Size: B > Al > Ga > In > Al
9. Which of the following vitamins are fat-soluble? B ₁₂ , C, D, B, E
10. Find orbital angular momentum for 2s and 2p energy levels.

11. List 1	List 2
    Pnictogens	Rn
    Chalcogens	At
    Halogens	Te
    Noble Gas	Bi

12. Which of the following reagent is used to prepare tribromoamiline?
13. C ₉ H ₁₂ is a derivative of benzene, how many total structural isomers of the compounds are possible?
14. Statement I: Nylon is dry faster them cotton.
    Statement II: Nylon has intra hydrogen -Bonding.
    (A) Statement-I and Statement-II both are correct
    (B) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is incorrect
    (C) Statement-II is correct and Statement-I is incorrect
    (D) Statement-I and Statement-II both are incorrect
15. Structural isomers of C₉H₁₂ (with benzene ring).
16. Which of the following compound or complex ions is/are diamagnetic in nature?
    (a) CrO ₃
    (b) [Fe(CN) ₆ ] ^4-
    (c) [Co(H₂O ₃ ),F ₃ )
    (d) [Cr(NH ₃ ) ₆ ] ³⁺
17. Which reaction will produce 3,4,5- Tribromo aniline?
18. Statement-I: CrO ₃ is a strong oxidising agent
    Statement-II: Cr ⁺⁶ is more stable than Mo ⁺⁶ considering the above statements, choose the correct option.
    (A) Statement-I and Statement-II both are correct
    (B) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is incorrect
    (C) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is correct
    (D) Statement-I and Statement-II both are incorrect
19. Which of the following statement is correct with respect to Arrhenius equation?
20. 20 mL 1M NaOH is mixed with 10 mL 2M HCI which is further diluted to 100 mL. Find concentration of final solution?

JEE Main Maths Question 2025 April 3 Shift 2

The questions from the Mathematics section for Day 2 Shift 2 exam has been added here for the candidates.

1. Let a circle C with radius r passes through four distinct points (0,0), (k, 3k), (2, 3), and (-1, 5), such that k ≠ 0, then (10k + 2r ² ) is equal to _________.
2. If lim x-->0, (tan x/x)^{1/x^2}= p, then 96 ln p is _____________.
3. Let A = {-3, -2,-1,0,1,2,3}. A relation R is defined such that xRy iff y = max{x, 1}. Number of elements required to make it reflexive is l, number of elements required to make it symmetric as m and number of elements in the relation R is n. Then value of 1 + m + n is equal to _____________.
4. Let y = f(x) be the solution of the differential equation  such that  , then ​​​​​​​​​​​​is equal  ______________.
5. S= 1 + (1+3)/1! + (1+3+5)/2! + ... ∞. The value of S is equal to _____________.
6. The distance of the point (7, 10, 11) from the line (x-4)/1= (y-4)/0 =(z-2)/3 along the line (x-9)/2 = (y-13)/3 = (z-17)/6 is ______________________.
7. If (1+x+x ² ) ¹⁰ = 1+a ₁ x+a ₂ x ² +..., then (a ₁ +a ₃ +a ₅ +...a ₁₉ )-11a ₂ equals to ___________.
8. Area bounded by |x-y| less than equal to y less than equal to 4√x is equal to ____________ (in square units).
9. x(x-2)(12-k) = 2 has both roots same. The distance of (k, k/2) from the line 3x + 4y + 5 = 0 is _____________.
10. If f(x) = ||x+2| - 2|x||, then number of points of local maxima and local minima is ________________.
11. If f(x) + 3f() = 4x, x ≠ 0, then find the value of f(3) + f(8).
12. If the coordinates of foci of a hyperbola 3x2-y2-αx+βy+γ = 0 are (4, 2) and (8, 2). Then (α+β+γ) is equal to __________.
13. If the coordinates of foci of a hyperbola 3x2-y2-αx+βy+γ = 0 are (4, 2) and (8, 2). Then (α+β+γ) is equal to _______________.
14. If the equation x (x + 2) (12 – K) = 2 has equal roots, then find the shortest distance between P(K, K/2) from 3x + 4y + 5 = 0.
15. The shortest distance between the parabola y ² = 8x and the circle x ² + y ² + 12y + 35 = 0 is ___________________.

The answer keys will also be provided to help candidates evaluate their performance on the test. Soon, there will be four memory-based question papers included in the table given above. Subject matter experts from Aakash BYJU, Vedantu, and Resonance will prepare the answer key for all the subjects accordingly.

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