AIBE 20 Answer Key 2025 LIVE Updates: The Bar Council of India successfully conducted the All India Bar Examinations XX today, November 30, 2025, at the designated test centres in pen and paper mode. Test takers can check the unofficial answer key for all the sets of questions on this page. As per the schedule, the law entrance was held in a single shift from 1 PM to 4 PM.
Test takers have to answer a total of 100 objective-type questions from subjects including constitutional law, criminal procedure, IPC, and others. The unofficial answer keys will contain correct responses to the questions asked in the exam. Catch up with the live updates on AIBE 20 answer key and question paper on this page.
Also Check |
- AIBE 20 Question Paper Analysis 2025: Exam Difficulty Level
- AIBE 20 SC/ST Cutoff 2025: Passing Marks and Past Trends
- AIBE 20 General Category Passing Marks 2025
AIBE 20 Unofficial Answer Key 2025 For Sets A, B, C, and D
With the conclusion of the examination at 4 PM, we will update the set-wise AIBE 20 answer keys PDFs in the table below. Candidates can analyse their performance by comparing their responses with the unofficial keys.
| S.No | AIBE 20 Questions | Unofficial Answer Keys |
| 1 | The grounds of decree for dissolution of marriage under section 2 of the Dissolution of Muslim Marriage Act, 1939, are | D (None of these) |
| 2 | Under section 37 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act 1996, which is not appealable | B(Refusing to appoint an arbitrator under Section 11 |
| 3 | Under section 9A of the Advisory Act 1961, a legal aid committee should consist of | C(Not more than 9 and less than 5) |
| 4 | Which section of the Advocates Act 1961 provides for the disciplinary powers of the BCI | B |
| 5 | In which case, SC stated that the preamble is not part of the Constitution | C(re The Berubari Union and Exchange of Enclaves 1960) |
| 6 | Which Article relates to the subject matter of laws made by Parliament | C(Article 253) |
| 7 | In which judgments, the right to privacy issues dealt with SC | D |
| 8 | Which action is required if territory is ceded to any other country by the Union of India | D(legislative enactment by the parliament and then the executive action) |
| 9 | If the President has referred a question to SC and SC has advised the President, then is it considered Judicial precedent | D(Yes, because it is pronounced in open court) |
| 10 | In a criminal defamation trial, if the High Court restrains news publication, then which constitutional power is exercised by the High Court | C(inherent power) |
| 11 | Which stated provision is used as a source of fundamental rights given by the SC | C(Article 19 1 A) |
| 12 | Which schedule deals with the subject matter of validation of certain Acts & Regulations | A (Schedule IX) |
| 13 | Which one is the correct statement for Article 32 | C(statement III is false) |
| 14 | If the bailiff executes the eviction based on a civil court order later declared void for lack of jurisdiction, then what protection does Section 78 of the IPC provide | C(bailiff is exempt if he acted in good faith under the order) |
| 15 | Under BNS 2023, what is the maximum number of consecutive days an offender may be kept in solitary confinement at a time? | C |
| 16 | Per the Motor Vehicles Act 1988, what is the fixed amount of compensation offered in the event of death caused by an accident under no-fault liability? | B(Rs 50,000) |
| 17 | If a person attempts an offence punishable with 10 years imprisonment, then the maximum years of imprisonment that can be imposed under section 62 of BNS 2023 is | A(five years) |
| 18 | What is the maximum period of detention in a civil prison for a decree amount above Rs 5,000 | C (3 months) |
| 19 | Which situation falls within section 58(1)b of the Code of Civil Procedure | C(decree for Rs 3,500, detention up to 6 weeks) |
| 20 | Under CCP, 1908, within how many days from the date of service of summons to submit | A (30 days) |
| 21 | How long registered address under section 14A(1) remain valid | C(2 years after final determination of the cause) |
| 22 | Under which provision of the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973 will a juvenile's offence in life imprisonment fall to | A(Section 27) |
| 23 | Under which section (290 1) of Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita 2023, within how many days of framing of charge can an accused file a plea bargaining | B(30) |
| 24 | Under the BNS 2023, what is the maximum imprisonment for a person who couldn't pay the fine of Rs 4,000 | B(2 months) |
| 25 | Per section 18 of BNSS 2023, what is the minimum period for an advocate to be eligible as a public prosecutor | C (7 years) |
| 26 | Under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, when facts otherwise irrelevant are relevant | C (when they are inconsistent with a fact in issue or a relevant fact) |
| 27 | What condition must be satisfied for prior evidence to be relevant under Section 33 of IEA, 1872 | C(proceeding was between the same parties or representatives in interest) |
| 28 | which provision guarantees a person seeking right to preserve their unique literature | Article 29(A) |
| 29 | Per section 25(a) of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, what happens when the claimant fails to submit a statement | D(tribunal terminates proceedings) |
| 30 | Under the Land Acquisition Act 1894, what is the minimum period that elapses between notice and the person's appearance | C(not less than 15 days) |
| 31 | Which provision allows citizens to file a public case in the Magistrate's court | C(section 133 of CCP, 1973) |
| 32 | In Section 35 A of the CCP 1908, what is the maximum compensation costs a court can offer | D (Rs 3,000) |
| 33 | Communication of an acceptance complete against a proposer per ICA 1872 | B(dispatched beyond the control of the acceptor) |
| 34 | What is the maximum sentence of imprisonment under the Negotiable Instruments Act 1881 | C(1 year) |
| 35 | Under ICA, 1872, what is the legal effect if an offeree's response to a proposal introduces a new term | C(rejects original proposal) |
| 36 | In the absence of agreement between parties, arbitration proceedings begin on | C(on date of request for reference) |
| 37 | Which public litigations expanded Art 21 to include the right to the enjoyment of pollution-free water and air | A(Subhash Kumar v, Bihar) |
| 38 | Which public interest litigation case resulted in SC laying down Absolute Liability | A (MC Mehta v Union of India, AIR 1987 SC 1086) |
| 39 | In which case, SC pointed out the rule of nemo judex in causa sua | C(J Mohapatra & Co, v Orissa) |
| 40 | Per section 11 of CCP, 1908, for Res Judicata to be applicable in a subsequent suit | C(staements I, II and IV) |
| 41 | When is a confession made in police custody admissible under Bharatiya Sakshya Ahiniyam, 2023 | B(only if it is made in the immediate presence of a magistrate) |
| 42 | Which section of Bharatiya Sakshya Ahiniyam, 2023 pertains expert's opinion | B(Section 39) |
| 43 | Identity incorrect statement per Bharatiya Sakshya Ahiniyam, 2023 | B(agrees absolutely to pay B 1000 on 1st Mar 2023..... |
| 44 | Grounds for a decree for marriage dissolution under Section 2 of the Dissolution of Muslim Marriages Act 1939 are that the | D (none of these) |
| 45 | SC in RK Anad v Registrar Delhi HS (2009) 8 SCC 106 held an advocate guilty for | C(interfering in a criminal trial) |
| 46 | Match List 1 with 2 using codes | C(I-4, II-3, III-1, IV-2) |
| 47 | Under the Specific Relief Act, 1963, when can the defendant in possession of movable property be compelled to deliver it to the plaintiff | A(when property is held as agent or trustee) |
| 48 | For multiple offenses, how does IPC ensure proportional justice | A(by imposing punishment for the offence with lowest prescribed term) |
| 49 | Under ICA 1872, what happens if the principal debtor leaves and there are more than 2 co-sureties | C(co-surities share the unpaid portion in equal contribution) |
| 50 | Under CCP 1908, how many judges constitute the Judicial membership of the Rule Committee | A(3 judges of the High Court) |
| 51 | What is the maximum punishment under the Copyright Act 1957 | A(imprisonment up to 3 years and a fine up to 2 lakhs) |
| 52 | Per section 44 A(2)(i) of the Income Tax Act 1961, if a person carrying on business must maintain a book of count if income exceeds | A(Rs 1,20,000) |
| 53 | Which situation prevents a patent application from being published after the period expires | B(when secrecy deposition is imposed) |
| 54 | Choose the Correct statements | D(both statements are true) |
| 55 | Which type of allowance qualifies for deduction under section 16(ii) of the Income Tax Act | B(entertainment allowance to govt employees) |
| 56 | Under section 24(a), what percentage of the annual value of an income of house property is allowed as standard deduction | C(30) |
| 57 | Legislation for conferring uncontrolled legislative power on the administration is called the doctrine of | B (Excessive Delegation) |
| 58 | Which condition must be satisfied for things done by one conspirator ot be admissible against others | C( there must be reasonable ground to believe conpiracy exists) |
| 59 | Per CCP 1908, who can direct the court..... | B(appellate court hearing appeal) |
| 60 | What is the time for solemnizing a marriage under Section 10 of the Marriage Act | D(3 months) |
| 61 | What is the maximum imprisonment term for domestic violence | B(1 year) |
AIBE 20 Question Paper Analysis: Section-wise Difficulty Level
Candidates can check the difficulty level in each section of AIBE 20 question papers 2025 here. We have updated the question papers soon.
| Sections | AIBE Question Difficulty Level |
| Constitutional & Administrative Law | Moderate |
| CrPC, CPC & IPC | Easy to Moderate |
| Family Law & Evidence | Easy to Moderate |
| Intellectual Property Law | Moderate |
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Live Updates
The AIBE (All India Bar Examination) 20 is conducted on 30th November 2025.
Candidates can follow the steps mentioned below to object to the wrong answers mentioned in the provisional answer key of the AIBE 20 Exam 2025.
- Go to the official website of the AIBE: https://www.allindiabarexamination.com/.
- Find the link to object to the wrong answers. Click on the link.
- A new login page will open where candidates need to enter their login credentials and then submit.
- After that, candidates need to select the proper answer set (Ex, A, B, C, etc.).
- Select the questions and submit your proof to support your answer.
- Pay the fees and submit.
If there is any wrong answer in the provisional answer key of the AIBE 20 Exam 2025, then candidates can object to those particular answers.
The AIBE 20 Exam 2025 is conducted only once a year. Hence, candidates will get only one attempt to write this exam.
No, the AIBE 20 Exam 2025 will be conducted offline. Hence, it is a pen and paper-based exam.
Factors that will affect the AIBE 20 Cutoff 2025 are mentioned as follows:
- Total number of candidates who appeared in the exam.
- The difficulty level of the question paper of the AIBE 20 Exam 2025.
- Number of discrepancies in the question paper.
- Question removed by the Bar Council of India due to discrepancies.
As per the cutoff of the previous years, the expected cutoff in the AIBE 20 Exam 2025 for the PwD category candidates will be 31 to 32.
The expected cutoff in the AIBE 20 Exam 2025 for the ST category candidates will be 34 to 35, as per the cutoff of the previous years.
In the AIBE 20 Exam 2025, the expected cutoff for the SC category candidates will be 36 to 37, as per the cutoff of the previous years.
As per the cutoff of the previous years, the expected cutoff in the AIBE 20 Exam 2025 for the OBC category candidates will be 38 to 41.
The expected cutoff in the AIBE 20 Exam 2025 for the general category candidates will be 45 to 47, as per the cutoff of the previous years.
No, there will not be any negative marking in the AIBE 20 Exam 2025. Therefore, no marks of the candidates will be deducted for any wrong answer.
No, the paper will not be descriptive. All the questions in the AIBE 20 Exam 2025 will be multiple-choice type (MCQ).
The marking scheme of the AIBE 20 Exam 2025 is mentioned as follows:
- All the questions will carry 1 mark.
- There will be a total of 100 questions. Hence, the total marks of the paper are 100.
- There will not be any negative marking.
The total duration of the AIBE 20 Exam 2025 will be 3 hours or 180 minutes. Hence, candidates will get a total of 3 hours to complete the whole paper.
The total marks in the AIBE 20 Exam 2025 are 100. All the candidates need to answer all the questions and submit within the time.
The details that will be mentioned on the Certificate of Practice of the candidates are as follows:
- Name of the Candidate
- Roll Number of the Candidate
- Year in which the candidate passed the AIBE Exam
- Enrollment Number
- Registration Number
- Photograph and Signature of the Candidate
- Signature of the Bar Council of India Authority
Candidates who pass the AIBE 20 Exam 2025 can collect their Certificate of Practice after the declaration of the result.
To obtain the Certificate of Practice, a candidate must visit the Bar Council of his/ her state with the AIBE 20 Admit Card and the receipt of the application fee payment after the declaration of the result.
A candidate who passes the All India Bar Examination (AIBE exam) will get the Certificate of Practice within 3 months of the result declaration.
The AIBE 20 Exam 2025 is conducted in multiple shifts, and there will be multiple sets of question papers in this exam. Hence, the difficulty level of the question paper will vary according to the shift. To compensate for the difficulty level of various shifts, a normalization process is implemented.
Yes, a normalization procedure will be followed at the time of AIBE 20 result declaration. It will ensure that no students will get the advantage of a particular shift due to the difficulty level of the question paper.
Candidates who have failed in the AIBE 202 Exam 2025 can follow the steps mentioned below to apply for the re-checking of their answer sheets.
- Go to the official website of the AIBE: https://www.allindiabarexamination.com/.
- In the notification section, there will be a notice regarding the rechecking process. The link will also be in that notice. Click on the link.
- A new page will open where candidates need to enter their name, roll number, date of birth, phone number, reason for checking, etc., and then submit.
Yes, a rechecking facility is available for the answer sheet. Candidates who fail in the AIBE 20 Exam 2025 can apply for rechecking of answer sheets by following the proper steps and within the due date.
In the AIBE 20 Scorecard 2025, the following discrepancies could be present:
- Wrong name of the candidate
- Wrong photograph or signature
- Blurred or no photograph or signature of the candidate
- Wrong roll number/ registration number
- Spelling mistakes, etc
If candidates find any discrepancy in their AIBE 20 Scorecard 2025, then they must contact the exam conducting authority.
After the declaration of the AIBE 20 Result 2025, candidates have to check their scorecard carefully. They must check all the details such as name, roll number, photograph, spelling mistakes, etc.
The following details will be mentioned on the AIBE 20 Scorecard:
- Name of the candidate
- Father’s/ Mother’s/ Husband’s Name
- Roll Number
- Registration Number
- Enrollment Number
- Photograph and Signature of the candidate
- Result status
The result of the AIBE 20 Exam 2025 will be available on the official website. Candidates have to visit the official website to check it. The link to the official website to check the result is: https://www.allindiabarexamination.com/.
Candidates who appeared in the AIBE 20 Exam 2025 are eligible to check their results. Once the result is published, they can check their result individually.
The official date for the declaration of the AIBE 20 result 2025 has not been declared by the exam conducting authority yet. It is expected that the result of this exam will be released at least a month or two after the exam.
To check the result of the AIBE 20 Exam 2025, a candidate needs to follow the steps mentioned below.
- Go to the official website of the AIBE: allindiabarexamination.com/.
- On the homepage, go to the notification section.
- Here, the notification for the result publication of the AIBE 20 Exam 2025 will be mentioned.
- Click on the notification.
- Download the result and save it for future reference.
Candidates must visit the official website of the All India Bar Examination (AIBE) to check the final answer key of this exam. The official website of AIBE is: https://www.allindiabarexamination.com/.
The provisional answer key is expected to be released by the very next day of the exam. Hence, candidates can expect the provisional answer key to be released by 1st December 2025. However, the exam conducting authority has not declared the official release date of the provisional answer key of the AIBE 20 Exam 2025.
There is no upper age limit to appear in the All India Bar Examination (AIBE) 20 Exam 2025. Candidates can appear for the exam regardless of their age, as long as they meet the educational requirements and have enrolled with the State Bar Council.
There is no limit for a candidate to retake the exam. A candidate can appear in this exam as many times as he/she want.
To pass the AIBE 20 Exam 2025, a candidate from the PwD category has to score at least 40% marks.
Candidates from the ST category have to secure at least 40% marks to pass the AIBE 20 Exam 2025.
For the SC category candidates, the minimum passing marks in the AIBE 20 Exam 2025 are 40%.
In the AIBE 2025 exam, the minimum passing marks for the OBC category candidates are 45%.
The minimum passing marks in the AIBE 20 Exam 2025 for the general category candidates are 45%.
Through this exam, a candidate’s basic knowledge and analytical skills related to law are judged. After passing this exam, law graduates will be able to practice law in India.
The Bar Council of India is the conducting authority of this exam. They conduct and declare the results of the candidates who appeared in this exam.
The AIBE (All India Bar Examination) 20 is conducted on 30th November 2025.